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	<title>Comments on: Copyfraud once more</title>
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	<link>http://www.roger-pearse.com/weblog/?p=3811</link>
	<description>Thoughts on Antiquity, Patristics, putting things online, and more</description>
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		<title>By: Roger Pearse</title>
		<link>http://www.roger-pearse.com/weblog/?p=3811&#038;cpage=1#comment-20332</link>
		<dc:creator>Roger Pearse</dc:creator>
		<pubDate>Wed, 17 Mar 2010 10:56:28 +0000</pubDate>
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		<description>&lt;p align=justify&gt;Well, I think of Harry Potter here as a guide to what happens.  A translation of the work is a derivative work.  There is copyright in the original text, and then the translator&#039;s copyright.  Both have made original creative works.  This is why a translation of a modern copyright work requires permission and would involve royalties to the author.

&lt;p align=justify&gt;For an ancient text, on the other hand, it seems wrong in principle to talk about author&#039;s copyright, just because someone has done some editing and corrected a few mistakes of transmission.  Only the original creative work is copyright, under any normal understanding of the law, in any reasonable jurisdiction.  But when someone makes a translation of that non-copyright work, that does involve creative work, and a copyright comes into being (which in turn can be sold, licensed, traded, or in my case, released into the public domain).  It would not, of course, prevent someone else from translating the same work independently.

&lt;p align=justify&gt;We really need someone to take on this matter and establish some solid legal precedents that express what we all know to be reasonable here; that Chrysostom did not sell his copyright to Messrs Blogs and Blogs of Leiden (or whoever) and they do not own it.  They DO own the translation they bought of it, tho.</description>
		<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p align=justify>Well, I think of Harry Potter here as a guide to what happens.  A translation of the work is a derivative work.  There is copyright in the original text, and then the translator&#8217;s copyright.  Both have made original creative works.  This is why a translation of a modern copyright work requires permission and would involve royalties to the author.</p>
<p align=justify>For an ancient text, on the other hand, it seems wrong in principle to talk about author&#8217;s copyright, just because someone has done some editing and corrected a few mistakes of transmission.  Only the original creative work is copyright, under any normal understanding of the law, in any reasonable jurisdiction.  But when someone makes a translation of that non-copyright work, that does involve creative work, and a copyright comes into being (which in turn can be sold, licensed, traded, or in my case, released into the public domain).  It would not, of course, prevent someone else from translating the same work independently.</p>
<p align=justify>We really need someone to take on this matter and establish some solid legal precedents that express what we all know to be reasonable here; that Chrysostom did not sell his copyright to Messrs Blogs and Blogs of Leiden (or whoever) and they do not own it.  They DO own the translation they bought of it, tho.</p>
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		<title>By: Swain</title>
		<link>http://www.roger-pearse.com/weblog/?p=3811&#038;cpage=1#comment-20326</link>
		<dc:creator>Swain</dc:creator>
		<pubDate>Wed, 17 Mar 2010 05:21:58 +0000</pubDate>
		<guid isPermaLink="false">http://www.roger-pearse.com/weblog/?p=3811#comment-20326</guid>
		<description>Well, you had a translation made....I&#039;m no expert in copyright law and of course such things are different from place to place, but I&#039;m given to understand that a translation made from a published text is not violating copyright, esp. if said translation acknowledges the source text.  But the translation becomes a copyrighted work in itself.</description>
		<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>Well, you had a translation made&#8230;.I&#8217;m no expert in copyright law and of course such things are different from place to place, but I&#8217;m given to understand that a translation made from a published text is not violating copyright, esp. if said translation acknowledges the source text.  But the translation becomes a copyrighted work in itself.</p>
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